You will find the content of English Language Part – 2 very much useful, and shall be able to easily score high marks in this section. In competitive exams, Test of English Language is among the four main sections like General Knowledge, Quantitative Aptitude, and Reasoning Ability Tests.
English Language Part – 2 : Practice Exercises to Ensure Your Success
English Language Practice Exercise Set : 1
Q. 1 – 20 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). ( Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any )
1. Ram asked me/ whether I had a car /and would I / pick him up / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
2. A smiling, face / often disguises / the mind and heart / of a wicked man / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
3. Everybody among the guests were / enjoying drinking / when the theft / took place / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
4. Although these buildings / are in need of repair / there have been much improvement /
1 2 3
in their appearance / No Error.
4 5
5. I am disappointed / in not having saw / any stage play while / I was in Baroda / No Error.
- 2 3 4 5
6. Americans are / accustomed to / drinking coffee / with their meals / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
7. Consider all the possibilities, / I really believe / that I would prefer / not to make any change /
1 2 3 4
No Error.
5
8. The reason he has / been such a success / is because he / never gives up / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
9. The customer was / angry at the clerk / for being detained / for a very long time / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
10. After every student / had turned in / their paper / the teacher dismissed the class / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
11. Any help / that you can / give me / will be appreciate / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
12. No sooner, did / he tore open / the envelope, than he / fell down unconscious / No Error.
- 2 3 4 5
13. In one of our first conversation / she informed me / that she had been / ill for months
- 2 3 4
/ No Error.
5
14. He was looking impatient / at the salesman, who showed / no signs of / leaving the room / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
15. Ten miles beyond the islands / were stranded a ship / with its sails / lowered / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
16. If anyone happens to call / while I am out / please have there leave / a massage for me 1 2 3 4
/ No Error.
5
17. These kind of shoes / seem to be expensive / but they are relatively / easy to care for / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
18. He has had / an active carrier / writing poetry and / reporting for a news paper / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
19. She held, something / at her side / which was hiding / by the folds of her dress / No Error.
- 2 3 4 5
20. Whomever / we think deserves / the award will / certainly get / No Error.
1 2 3 4 5
Q. 21 – 25 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Because goldfish can be kept easily in small ponds and aquariums, they make good pets, but like many other pets, must have proper care and the right kind of place to live.
A two – inch fish requires a minimum of two gallons of water containing sufficient oxygen to support life. Some oxygen will make its way into the water of an aquarium from the air that touches the surface. Plants in an aquarium also help to furnish oxygen. Snails help to keep an aquarium clean. Thus, with plenty of plants and snails the water in an aquarium does not have to be changed frequently. A large lake may prove to be a quite unsuitable abode for goldfish.
It is important that goldfish not be overfed. They can be fed such things as dried insects in addition to commercially prepared goldfish food, but they should never be fed more than once a day. Even then, they should not be given more food than can be consumed in about five minutes. This ensures prolonged life.
21. Which of the following statements is true ?
(1) Goldfish should be given food only once a day.
(2) Snails eat up the goldfish in an aquarium.
(3) Plants provide food to the snails.
(4) Goldfish come above the surface of water to get oxygen from air.
(5) A large lake is an ideal place for goldfish.
22. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(1) Snails make the aquarium clean by eating up goldfish.
(2) Two gallons of water with sufficient oxygen is enough for a two-inch fish.
(3) Goldfish can be made good pets.
(4) Plants in an aquarium provide oxygen to goldfish.
(5) Goldfish must never be given too much food.
23. Which of the following helps supply goldfish with oxygen ?
(1) Snails
(2) Plants
(3) Dried insects
(4) Aquarium
(5) Surface of water
24. Water in an aquarium needs to be changed if …..
(1) There are plenty of snails and plants in it.
(2) there is no sufficient oxygen in it.
(3) it is very clean and contains sufficient oxygen.
(4) it does not contain goldfish food and dried insects.
(5) none of these.
25. What is important to remember when feeding goldfish ?
(1)They should be fed more than once a day.
(2) They should be fed at five minute intervals.
(3) They should be fed with plants and snails.
(4) They should be fed only once a day.
(5) They should be given more food than they can consume.
Q. 26 – 30 : Pick out the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word used in the passage :
26. Consumed
(1) Spent
(2) Destroy
(3) Eaten
(4) Completed
(5) Fed
27. Abode
(1) Atmosphere
(2) Climate
(3) Thing
(4) Object
(5) Place
28. Live
(1) Dwell
(2) Survive
(3) Habitat
(4) Abode
(5) Dive
29. Furnish
(1) Remove
(2) Burn
(3) Decompose
(4) Respire
(5) Provide
30. Proper
(1) Able
(2) Exact
(3) Utmost
(4) Appropriate
(5) Special
Q. 31 – 35 : Pick out the word that is most opposite in meaning of the word as used in the passage .
31. Sufficient
(1) More
(2) Inadequate
(3) Small
(4) Short
(5) Efficient
32. Plenty
(1) Few
(2) Some
(3) Abundant
(4) Scarcity
(5) Enough
33. Prolonged
(1) Obliged
(2) Short
(3) Miserable
(4) Uncomfortable
(5) Condensed
34. Right
(1) Left
(2) Proper
(3) Spacious
(4) Unsuitable
(5) Inadequate
35. Frequently
(1) Often
(2) Rarely
(3) Never
(4) Rapidly
(5) Slowly
Q. 36 – 50 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete .
36. He prefers swimming …………….. any other sport.
(1) Than
(2) Over
(3) To
(4) Against
(5) After
37. The Kind hearted judge………………the thief since he had repented for the theft.
(1) Punished
(2) Apologized
(3) Begged
(4) Pardoned
(5) Sentence
38. The student………………..the conversation without waiting for the speaker to stop talking.
(1) Interpreted
(2) Continued
(3) Interrupted
(4) Interfered
(5) Broke
39. I could not finish the work in time because I was very……………….
(1) Energetic
(2) Fatigue
(3) Lazy
(4) Dynamic
(5) Tired.
40. I am ………………. to having a good breakfast in the morning.
(1) Fond
(2) Liking
(3) Desirous
(4) Used
(5) Eager
41. The play should have begun at eight but the …………………….didn’t rise until half past eight.
(1) Player
(2) Actor
(3) Director
(4) Stage
(5) Curtain.
42. The candidate’s……………………..at the poll was over whelming.
(1) Triumph
(2) Win
(3) Treachery
(4) Popularity
(5) Victory
43. The earth is usually ……………… by a sphere.
(1) Represented
(2) Drawn
(3) Rotated
(4) Held
(5) Colored.
44. In spite of…………………….warnings, the mistake has occurred.
(1) Repetitive
(2) Repeated
(3) Suggested
(4) Less
(5) Corrected
45. He insists……………………leaving immediately.
(1) At
(2) On
(3) For
(4) Over
(5) Against
46. ……………………….he invited me, I would have gone to the meeting.
(1) If
(2) Unless
(3) Had
(4) Because
(5) Although
47. He was released because the court found him……………………..of murdering his wife.
(1) Innocent
(2) Guilty
(3) Dubious
(4) Admitting
(5) Criminal
48. His …………………the award was the highest attainment of his carrier.
(1) Selecting
(2) Winning
(3) Gaining
(4) Rewarding
(5) Giving
49. Now-a-days he is ……………….busy to take care of his health.
(1) So
(2) Very
(3) Extremely
(4) Too
(5) Absolutely
50. We are looking forward…………………..your cooperation.
(1) At (2) After (3) For (4) About (5) To
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
KEY ENGLISH ( PE ) SET : 1
- (3) The correct sentence will be “Ram asked me whether I had a car and if I would pick him up” . The above sentence consists of two sentences. In the second sentence the inquiry is in the reported speech . Ram wants to know “ if I would pick him up ” .
2. (5) In this sentence, the comma after smiling is wrong . But since, as per directions, we have to ignore the punctuation errors, the sentence may be considered to be correct
3. (1) Say, “Everybody was enjoying……………….”
4. (3) Replace have by has. The actual subject in this clause is “ improvement ” ( and not there ) which is singular.
5. (2) Say, “ In not having seen “.
6. (5)
7. (1) Say, “ considering all the possibilities”. It actually means, “After considering all the possibilities” , though “After” need not be mentioned since it is understood ) .
8. (1) Say, “ The reason why he has” .
9. (2) Say, “angry with the clerk”. One shouts at a person when one is angry with him .
10. (3) Replace “ their” by “this” since “student” is singular .
11. (4) After “be” one should always use the third form of verb. So the correct form will be “will be appreciated” .
12. (2) Say, “he tear open”.
13. (1) Say, “ In one of our first conversions”. Here first implies “one of many”.
Hence, “conversion” must be in plural .
14. (1) or (2) The correct sentence is either, “He was looking impatiently at the salesman, who showed no signs of leaving the room” or “He was looking impatient because of the salesman, who showed no signs of leaving the room”.
15. (2) Say, “was stranded a ship”.
16. (3) Say, “ please ask him to leave”.
Anyone is singular hence it should be followed by “him” and not “them”. Similarly, “Ask” or “request” are better substitutes for “have”. The infinitive “to” must follow him.
17. (1) Say, “ These kinds of shoes” .
18. (5)
19. (3) Say, “which was hidden”.
20. (1) “whoever”
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (3)
27. (5) 28. (1) 29. (5) 30. (4) 31. (2) 32. (1)
33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (3)
39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (5)
42. (5) “ triumph” means “to win” and
“victory” means to “overcome” an opponent ”.
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2)
49. (4) 50. (5)
English Language Practice Exercise Set : 2
DIRECTIONS : In questions 1 to 5, five groups of four words each are given . In each group one word is misspelt . Find the misspelt word .
Q.1 (a) treasure (b) pleasure (c) seazure (d) leisure
Q.2 (a) retrieve (b) perceive (c) deecave (d) believe
Q.3 (a) conceit (b) deceit (c) receipt (d) depleat
Q.4 (a) conception (b) deception (c) perseption (d) reception
Q.5 (a) release (b) decease (c) discase (d) please
DIRECTIONS : In question 6 to 9 choose the word opposite in meaning to the word underlined in the sentence.
Q.6 (A) I had expected a prompt reply to my query.
(a) delayed (b) concise (c) immediate (d) lengthy
Q.7 Adherence to rules is implicit in the contract.
(a) evident (b) explicit (c) not actually stated (d) obvious
Q.8 The Indian Constitution is regarded as flexible.
(a) dogmatic (b) rigid (c) obstinate (d) Pliant
Q.9 Avail book on wholesale terms.
(a) bargain (b) cheap (c) retail (d) usual
DIRECTIONS : In questions 10 to 14, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered as 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are given in improper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
Q.10 (1) Candidates should have P, independent handling of Q. in the lending function R. of a large bank, including S. about 3 to 4 years experience 6. Corporate accounts .
(a) SPRQ (b) QPRS (c) SQRP (d) RPQS
Q.11 (1) It gives me, P. to this Extraordinary General Meeting Q. great pleasure R to welcome you S. which has been convened 6. to change the name of your company.
(a) QRPS (b) RPSQ (c) PSQR (d) SRPQ
Q.12 (1) No Fewer than 14 milk producers’ unions P. and provide other facilities such as seed, fodder Q. in the state R. are also active S. to milk to the chilling plants 6. and veterinary services.
(a) QPSR (b) SPRQ (c) PRQS (d) RQSP
Q.13 (1) Speaking at a function P. the Chief Justice laid emphasis Q. organized by the bar association R. at Mumbai S. and State judicial officers 6. on making the Lok Adalats popular.
(a) RQPS (b) RQSP (c) PQRS (d) SPRQ
Q.14 (1) I am also happy P, in the backward district of Talsari Q. Upon a large industrialization Program R. to inform you S. that your company is the first to embark 6. with an investment of over Rs. 5 crore.
(a) PRSQ (b) PQRS (c) SQPR (d) RSQP
DIRECTIONS : In Questions 15 to 24 you have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read these passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE – 1
In one of the commonest and hardiest plants in the desert is the castor oil plant, and those who only know, and probably dislike it as a medicine, will not see much connection between castor oil and nylon. But the scientists at the Weitzman Institute know all about fermentation, on which the President himself is one of the world’s greatest experts. Fermentation means using natural organisms, like germs on fungi, to break up vegetable matter into its chemical parts.
By fermentation, the castor oil plant can become the source of plastics, including nylon, which at the moment comes from either coal or petroleum. But after all, coal and petroleum are just vegetation (like the castor oil plant) which has been hoarded, crushed and transformed in the course of millions of years. Using the fermentation to speed up these drawn-out processes, the scientists mean to get an annual harvest of plastics from the desert. They mean to put the desert to work in terms of modern industry and Dr. Ernest David German, the Director of the Weitzman Institute, believes that the castor oil plant will become at least as important as the oranges and lemons industry in the future economy of Israel. That is an important consideration in a country which has no mineral resources and which is half desert.
Q.15 In Israel’s economy, the most important industry at present is :
(a) castor oil industry (b) fermentation industry (c) oranges and lemons industry (d) Plastics industry.
Q.16 Many people may dislike the castor oil plant because
(a) it grows in deserts (b) of its use as medicine (c) it is hardy plant (d) of its connection with nylon.
Q.17 Fermentation is a chemical process of :
(a) absorption (b) disintegration (c) fusion (d) vegetation
Q.18 The central idea of the passage relates to :
(a) the economy of Israel (b) Fermentation (c) nylon from castor oil plants
(d) The Weitzman Institute.
Q.19 At present nylon is obtained from :
(a) coal or petroleum (b) castor oil plants (c) deserts (d) plastic
PASSAGE – 2
In many ways goat-rearing is most suitable for small, poor farms and can help promote equity. This activity is labor intensive and is more economic using free household labor on small farms than hired labor on large farms. Goats need less capital investment and nutrient per head than cattle, goats can mature, conceive and lactate within one year.
Thus, their gestation period for both milk and meat is very short, an important consideration for small farmers with limited financial staying power. Goats usually give birth to twins or even quadruplets, so that their rate of multiplication is far faster than that of cattle. This helps offset the ravages of infant animal mortality. It is feasible for many farms to plant a short cycle fodder rotation. This will not only provide high quality green fodder for goats but also improve soil quality, as fodder crops are nitrogen fixers.
Q.20 Goats give birth even to quadruplets means :
(a) four-footed young ones are given birth to (b) four young ones are born at a birth
(c) four kids are born within one year (d) two kids are born at a time.
Q.21 The loss caused by infant animal deaths is compensated better by goats than by cattle because :
(a) goats have a better rate of breeding than cattle (b) cattle multiply faster than goats
(c) the morality rate among cattle is very small (d) the young ones of the goat live longer.
Q.22 Goats are better suited to small holdings because they :
(a) are small in size (b) multiply and increase their numbers fast
(c) need less capital investment and nutrient per head (d) need less fodder.
Q.23 The additional advantage of the short cycle fodder crop is :
(a) that fodder will be ready in a short time (b) that it will provide green fodder to goats
(c) that it will improve normal grain crop (d) that it will improve the quality of the soil.
Q.24 Goat breeding can be managed economically on small farms by :
(a) building smaller pens (b) using free household labor
(c) by hiring cheap village labor (d) selling goods profitably.
DIRECTIONS : In Questions 25 to 29 some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which of the parts A, B and C of a sentence has an error. If there is no error, then the answer is D.
Q.25 Of all the animals / in the zoo / I like the big, brown, jumping Kangaroo / No error.
A B C D
Q.26 He told the servant / that his work / is not satisfactory / No error.
A B C D
Q.27 The best feature of the Hindi films / are the songs / which are liked by all / No error.
A B C D
Q.28 All the people are happy / over the election of / the new Prime Minister / No error.
A B C D
Q.29 I am sorry / I am not knowing / anything about his problem / No error.
A B C D
DIRECTIONS : In Question 30 to 35 four alternatives are given for the word in italics in the sentence. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the word underlined.
Q.30 He gave me a detailed account of the meeting.
(a) analysis (b) report (c) history (d) summary
Q.31 All the streets looked just the same.
(a) exact (b) likely (c) exactly (d) only
Q.32 She was sure that her family wouldn’t mind.
(a) dislike (b) help (c) object (d) think.
Q.33 Meanwhile, would you wait outside ?
(a) While we are doing this (b) At the same time (c) During some time (d) Since we are doing this.
Q.34 I am quite content to stay here.
(a) afraid (b) compelled (c) eager (d) happy
Q.35 The Director leaves on Thursday on a tour of the Overseas branches of the
company.
(a) private (b) official visit (c) round up (d) unofficial visit
DIRECTIONS : In Questions 36 to 40 sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative.
Q.36 Until he……………………….confessed his fault, he will not be included in the team.
(a) had (b) has (c) will have (d) would have
Q.37 I am used to …………………….. in queues.
(a) stand (b) standing (c) stand up (d) stood up
Q.38 Much …………………….. since they were last here.
(a) has happened (b) had happened (c) was happening (d) would have happened
Q.39 Gopi ……………………..going to the post office with Rajan.
(a) are (b) is (c) were (d) will
Q.40 The messenger ……………………..hardly read or write.
(a) can’t (b) does (c) doesn’t (d) can
DIRECTIONS : In Questions 41 to 45 choose the best alternative to fill in the blanks in the sentence.
Q.41 The healthy silk worms are ……………………up on the leaves of mulberry.
(a) fed (b) brought (c) kept (d) put whether it is good or bad
Q.42 The gypsies do not live ……………………at particular place.
(a) permanently (b) voluntarily (c) broadly (d) willingly
Q.43 Here is a document that …………………….your signature
(a) brings (b) provides (c) bears (d) supports
Q.44 The dress was guaranteed not to …………………..
(a) contract (b) diminish (c) shrink (d) shorten
Q.45 The dress was guaranteed not to……..
(a) contract (b) diminish (c) shrink (d) shorten
DIRECTIONS : In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read over the passage and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given which will be your answers for Questions 46 – 50 .
The law of Virtue implies ……………46.
(a) hard (b) rigid (c) routine (d) temporary
observance of discipline. But once…………….47.
(a) the person (b) a (c) any (d) some
keen to uphold ………………………. 48.
(a) many (b) several (c) the (d) those
rules governing good conduct, starts ………………………49.
(a) abiding by them (b) flouting (c) ignoring (d) obeying
He will ultimately ………………….50.
(a) achieve (b) arrive (c) cross (d) reach
a stage when he will refrain from treading the path of evil .
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
KEY ENGLISH ( PE ) SET : 2
- (C) Seizure 2. (C) deceive 3. (D) deplete 4. (C) Perception
- (B) decease 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (B)
9 (C) 10. (C) SQRP 11. (A) QRPS 12. (D) RQSP
13. (B) RQSP 14. (D) RSQP 15. (C) 16. (B)
17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (D).
26. (C) Say, “was not satisfactory”. Since “He told” is in the past tense, “is” should be replaced by “was” .
27. (B) Say, “ The best feature of the Hindi films are liked by all”. Here the subject “ The best feature”, is Singular .
28. (D)
29. (B) “For not knowing” .
30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (B)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (A)
48. (C) 49 (A) 50 (D)
English Language Practice Exercise Set : 3
Q. 1 – 6: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it :
All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quark and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures. Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life sanctuaries and reserves have been stated, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is talking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now reintroduced into certain areas by means of aero plane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many species of no economic importance which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on. As mankind increases year by year and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance.
It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them in this; man for all his genius, cannot create the species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So, Until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refuges and living a precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Q.1 What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate ?
(1) reverence (2) pity (3) sympathy (4) fear (5) cruelty
Q.2 Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction ?
(1) dodo (2) quakes (3) sulk (4) beaver (5) None of these
Q.3 Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life ?
(1) Sanctuaries (2) Laws against destruction of wild life (3) More zoos
(4) Allocation of more funds (5) Charity of some human beings.
Q.4 Which of following types of animals does man chiefly protect ?
(1) Feeble animals (2) Economically useful (3)Harmless animals
(4) Those without any shelter (5)Those likely to perish.
Q.5 Animals specious should be preserved mainly because
(1) they are lovely creatures (2) they are killed by cruel people (3) they are useful to mankind
(4) zoologists want to study them (5) man cannot recreate a species of animal if it be destroyed.
Q.6 The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because.
(1) people kill animals callously (2) sanctuaries are not maintained properly
(3) there are very few places reserved for wild animals (4) people are ignorant
(5) there are few institutions for the preservation of wild life.
Q. 7 – 11 : Choose the word that is most nearly to SAME in meaning as the word used in the passage
Q.7 charity
1. sympathy 2. love 3. affection 4. kindness 5. help
Q.8 fauna
1. animals 2. trees 3. flowers 4. flora 5. cacti
Q.9 whittle
1. attack 2. destroy 3. Feed 4. Decline 5. reduce
Q.10 extermination
1. prolongation 2. End 3. Existence 4. Termination 5. annihilation
Q.11 harried
1. disturbed 2. Prodded 3. Harassed 4. Bustled 5. hastened
Q. 12 – 17 : Choose the word that is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word as used in the passage :
Q.12 Worthy
1. unimportant 2. valuable 3. undeserving 4. ugly 5. dishonorable
Q.13 Remorselessly
1. regretfully 2. guardedly 3. Kindly 4. Happily 5. Hesitatingly
Q.14 Obscure
1. unimpaired 2. paramount 3. salient 4. essential 5. prominent
Q.15 Precarious
1. dangerous 2. safe 3. wild 4. carefree 5. sure
Q.16 Steadily
1. awkwardly 2. waveringly 3. unreliably 4. rapidly 5. vaguely
Q.17 Dwindle
1. increase 2. diminish 3. develop 4. extend 5. decay
Q. 18 – 27 : In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. Those numbers are below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately in the context of the whole passage. Find out the appropriate words.
That several chemical concerns in and around Bombay have not (18) to (19) their (20) is well known. Nearly 2,000 out of 5,000 (21) pay no (22) to the (23) control (24) Small wonder that the respiratory and (25) ailments are on the (26) among the (27) of Bombay.
Q.18 (1) intended (2) agreed (3) cared (4) responded (5) anticipated
Q.19 (1) close (2) substitute (3) stop (4) limit (5) consummate
Q.20 (1) effluents (2) process (3) production (4) procedure (5) products
Q.21 (1) firms (2) concerns (3) workers (4) unions (5) institutions
Q.22 (1) credit (2) sanctity (3) regard (4) courtesy (5) modesty
Q.23 (1) noise (2) contamination (3) sound (4) explosion (5) pollution
Q.24 (1) rules (2) conventions (3) laws (4) formulae (5) tools
Q.25 (1) lever (2) eye (3) intestinal (4) heart (5) car
Q.26 (1) extension (2) expansion (3) decrease (4) increase (5) exuberance
Q.27 (1) residents (2) poor (3) workers (4) visitors (5) rich
Q. 28 – 40 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it . The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Do not look for errors in spelling and punctuation. When you find an error in a sentence, mark the number of that part of the sentence as the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5 .
Q.28 Rama told his sister that / I want your guidance / in choosing two out of three/ optional
1 2 3 4
subjects / No error.
5
Q.29 In the harbor great ships / lay at anchor / bearing the names of / far away places like Aberdeen
1 2 3 4
and even Singapore / No error.
5
Q.30 The scope of David to France / was successfully arranged, but no sooner /
1 2
was this done that George / was captured and held prisoner / No error.
3 4 5
Q.31 I cannot understand that / how you can think / of going to Kashmir / without woolen clothing /
1 2 3 4
No error.
5
Q.32 The Manager of the bank / together with his / whole staff / have resigned / No error.
1 2 3 4 5
Q.33 It is a view of the beautifully decorated / window displayer by the organizers /
1 2
of an exhibition of indoor plants / at the scouts pavilion / No error.
3 4 5
Q.34 Hardly had I reached / the bus stop I / was hit by / a very thick metal rod / No error.
1 2 3 4 5
Q.35 I cautioned him / against making any / statement until he / had not seen his lawyers / No error.
1 2 3 4 5
Q.36 Neither his mother nor his father / were aware / that she was suffering / from tuberculosis /
- 2 3 4
No error.
5
Q.37 Jane is prettier / than any other / woman member / of the family / No error.
1 2 3 4 5
Q.38 One of the most universal / desires with which / poor humanity is afflicted / is for a long life /
1 2 3 4
No error.
5
Q.39 I was promoted to / the principal’s post though / I was junior than /
1 2 3
all the other members of the staff / No error .
4 5
Q.40 I could hardly believe it / but it was a fact / that their best player / was worse than me
1 2 3 4
/No error.
5
Q. 41 – 50 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence complete.
Q.41 His treatment………………………his servant is notoriously mean.
(1) of (2) with (3) for (4) to (5) about
Q.42 His company is greatly sought ………………….
(1) at (2) after (3) out (4) for (5) in
Q.43 The passengers cried that the water was coming into the ship, but the captain………….them that there was no danger.
(1) assured (2) promised (3) notified (4) declared (5) announced
Q.44 The Manager of the team………………………..the competitors on their success.
(1) encouraged (2) wished (3) eulogized (4) praised (5) congratulated
Q.45 A number of advances in medicine would have been……………….sooner if free enquiry had been common and orthodox thinking habits had been rare.
(1) secured (2) persisted (3) achieved (4) inducted (5) propagated
Q.46 The climate of Bombay does not ………….with me.
(1) agree (2) hold (3) suit (4) favor (5) adjust
Q.47 I am angry with him………………his faithlessness.
(1) of (2) on (3) for (4) in (5) at
Q.48 It was ten years ago………………..the paper was stopped.
(1) since (2) for (3) that (4) as (5) from
Q.49 Pupils must………………their teachers whenever they meet them.
(1) respect (2) congratulate (3) regard (4) greet (5) recall
Q.50 I would…………………suffer than that you should wait.
(1) even (2) more (3) much (4) rather (5) less
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
KEY ENGLISH ( PE ) SET: 3
- (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (5) 6. (3)
7. (5) “help”. Help is crucial for survival .
8. (1) Animals “Flora” stands for plants .
9. (5) 10. (5) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (1)
14. (5) 15. (2) 16. (2). 17. (1) 18. (3)
19 (4) Limit. Limit is the first step and even this step has not been taken by the concerns .
20. (1) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (5) 24. (3) 25. (4)
26. (4) 27. (1)
28. (2) Say, “He wanted her guidance”. The use of the ‘that’ shows that the sentence is in reported speech.
29. (5) “Lay at anchor “ is an idiom.
30. (3) Say, “ was this done than”. “No sooner” is followed by than”.
31. (1) Say, “ I cannot understand how you can think …………………”. Here “that” is needless .
32. (4) Replace “have” by “has”.
This sentence can be better understood by rearranging the sentence in the following way :
“The Manager of the bank has resigned together with his whole staff”.
33. (5)
34. (2) Say, “the bus stop when I was hit ………………….” .
35. (4) or (3) The sentence can be written correctly in two ways :
- “had seen his lawyers ……………………………”.
- “I cautioned him against making any statement since he had not seen his lawyers”.
36. (2) and (3) “was aware” and “that he was suffering”.
37. (3) Say, “any other women of the family”.
38. (2) Say, “desires with which”.
39. (3) Say, “Junior to ………………..”.
40. (4) Say, “worse than I “.
41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (5) 45. (3) 46. (1)
47 (3) 48 (1) 49 (4) 50 (4).
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
KEY ENGLISH ( PE ) SET : 4
1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (E)
4. (A) It is important to indicate that who discovered the damage.
5. (A) Say, “ He is too clever a boy …………………..”.
6. (C) One speaks in a friendly manner.
7. (D)
8. (E)
9. (D)
10. (C) If is followed by were .
11. (D)
12. (A) The phrase is indulged in malpractices .
13. (A) Unless itself is negative . Say, “ unless I get ………..”
14. (A) Say, ‘ the man whom I have often mentioned”.
15. (E)
16. (A) Say, “ I lay down”.
17. (B) Say, “ one of the greatest scientists”.
18. (A) Say, “ How he earns money “.
19. (A) Say, “Not only did the bandit rob ………………….”
20. (D) When only two persons are involved we use “ each other”. “One another” is used when more than two persons are involved .
21. (C) Say, “ in both water and land”.
22. (E)
23. (A) Say, “the really important thing” .
24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (E) 29. (A)
30. (B) 31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (E)
36. (E) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (C) 40. (D) 41. (D)
42. (B) 43. (E) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (C)
48. (E) 49. (A) 50. (B)
